Date: Thu, 13 Mar 1997 13:00:50 -0700
By the end of "discourse on Language_, Foucault seems to be
going mad himself over the impossibilty of ever having
a philosophy that isn't Hegelian...(_Archaeology of Knowledge_, p. 236).
Why is he so upset with Hegel?
Is the point of the whole study of madness in _Archaeology..._ to
refute Hegel's methods and philosophy?
I'm curious as to why Foucault feels this strong antipathy,
frustration, and helplessness regarding Hegel.
Could someone enlighten me?