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From: GMCMILLAN@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
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Date: Mon, 17 Mar 1997 14:28:46 -0700
I am having some trouble situating those who would theorize, but
who seem uninterested in empirical supports for their theories.
I do not have the other quotations, but Foucault seems uninterested
in the traditional "normatizing" that empirical methods and statistical
supports from experiments run.
Two questions:
How does he come to this position?
Why does he feel that he has anything useful to offer if he
repeatedly says that it may be found lacking by empirical standards?
(Foucault, A of K, p. 114)
To put this another way, what positive benefit does he get from
inventing a new way of validating his theories?
Thanks for any and all comments.
Gloria
