From: Nesta <na.devine@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Date: Tue, 08 Sep 1998 18:01:05 +1200
In relation to your question , <do you think...that science evinces any
sort of application of the thought of any 19th century German
philopher>, Barry Smith, 'Aristotle, Menger, Mises' in the Annual
supplement to vol 22, History of political economy, ed Bruce Caldwell,
1990 - argues that Aristotle is the background to German sciences of all
kinds, so taken for granted that he is not mentioned or questioned. The
legacy of this thinking for contemporary science is probably through
Popper. It would be hard to argue that neither Aristotle nor Popper had
had an effect on science.
It might be that the kind of critique Wynship mentions is a kind of
reaction to Aristotelean science, which because of the popular alliance
between 'common sense' and teleological views of technology, is very
hard to make a dint in.
Wynship, would you not think that Foucault had had some effect upon
psychiatry? He tends not to take on the 'hard' sciences: I vaguely
remember reading a discussion of that phenomenon in a biography -
perhaps a notion that that was Canguilhem's patch??