The identification of Foucault's conceptual/methodological application as
being one of totalization is interesting. The complaint is a reasonable
one, and something that should be discussed. There is no doubt that
certain works by Foucault resemble a totalization of some sort,
_vis-a-vis_ their application of concepts and method. But what does this
presence of totalization reveal in Foucault's works? Is it a
methodological dogmatism? An idiosyncratic rut? Is it a celebration of
interpretive ecstasy? Or perhaps a working toward the revelation of
interpretation throught disclosure of our creative magnitude? However
one wants to problematize it, the possible answers look very interesting.

What do the rest of you think in regard to this matter?

Yours in discourse,

Steven Meinking
The University Of Utah

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