[no subject]

Hi all
may be this question of mine will be dealt with while we're doing La
Meninas, but i was wondering what was the source of 18th century
philosopher's interest in "representation" ? I am more interested in
political reasons. Why Kant insist so much on the publicity and spectacle?
how this is related to french 17 th century "theatre" which was used as a
mean of control? Or is there at all any relation?

I appreciate your thoughts on this.

Atefeh