Hello all.
i have not been following the discussion on silence but felt compelled to
jump in and give my two cents worth. perhaps i am completely off track
and maybe even playing devil's advocate. in which case i am certain
someone will set me straight.
in terms of silence and power...being still very much a novice on foucault
(F.) i think that silence is one way to exercise power over individuals
and agree with the statement Tom (?) made about the "silenced" parties
often being women. but F. seems to propose that "sound" or "discourse" as
he calls it is equally as limiting and oppressive if not more so than
silence. not allowing one to speak, yes, this is oppressive. but
allowing one to speak only within a specified realm of discourse where the
"rules" have been set by some given party...which is worse? rhetorical
question? perhaps....
Regards,
Clara Ho
University of Calgary