Foucault, Normalization, and Economics

Hi all,

I'm dropping out of list lurk-mode to ask a question. Someone here once
put forward the idea that Foucault's notion of discipline and
normalization was grounded in and depended upon economic plenty. This
seems to make a lot of sense to me, the idea that "saving" or perfecting
the individual requires that decision makers are functioning without
(severe) economic considerations when they gear the disciplinary
apparatus toward the individual. Could whoever mentioned this, or anyone
else who has any ideas on the subject, either post to the list, or e-mail
me? I want to include this idea in a project I am working on, and any
help would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks in advance,

John R. Vantine,
NYU Dept. of Politics,


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