Re: Modernity

In your message of 13:12 Aug 1 1996, you write:

> An article told me that Foucault regards the essence of the modern
> epoche being oppressive.
> Why the modern epoche, and not pre-modern times?
>
> Peter Norberg


Peter,

Could you provide a bit more info? What article says this, and what is
the context?

I suspect that Foucault wouldn't say that the modern epoche is any more
oppressive than any of the previous ones, though he might say that
particular sets of conditions make for the possibility of more effective
(whatever that means) relations of power whose results might be termed
oppressive.

Anyway, perhaps you could explain a bit more about the article itself.


Blaine Rehkopf
Philosophy
York University
CANADA

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