Re: (2) What??? or: Foucault is a Kantian

>....it's not that Foucault has no metaphysical
>foundations, but simply that he didn't thematise them. The illusion of
>having moved beyond metaphysics is one of the defining charateristics of
>"postmodern" thinking and something, by the way that it shares with positivism.

"The illusion of having moved beyond metaphysics." Could you please elaborate?

Isn't it somehow possible to get "beyond metaphysics?" If not, how do you
know? If so, how would you tell the difference between someone who had
gone "beyond" and someone who stayed "behind?"

Eric





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