Foucault would argue that language and specialised languages position
people in various ways. It is a site of power. So, 'intellectual' texts are
a site of power which, through their specialised language, discipline the
reader in a particular position.
How would Foucault respond to the suggestion that his own writing ... which
is specialised ... does the same thing?
people in various ways. It is a site of power. So, 'intellectual' texts are
a site of power which, through their specialised language, discipline the
reader in a particular position.
How would Foucault respond to the suggestion that his own writing ... which
is specialised ... does the same thing?