Re: Speaking for others

>First, with regard to what Deleuze called Foucault's concern about "the
>indignity of speaking for others"

Matthew, I'm wondering where Deleuze makes this observation. Could you
provide a citation?

>Rorty rather crudely makes more
>or less this point, that there is no "language of the oppressed", because
>to be oppressed is to be forced to describe yourself in someone else's
>terms.

And where Rorty makes this observation?

Thanks,
Bob