>First, with regard to what Deleuze called Foucault's concern about "the
>indignity of speaking for others"
Matthew, I'm wondering where Deleuze makes this observation. Could you
provide a citation?
>Rorty rather crudely makes more
>or less this point, that there is no "language of the oppressed", because
>to be oppressed is to be forced to describe yourself in someone else's
>terms.
And where Rorty makes this observation?
Thanks,
Bob
>indignity of speaking for others"
Matthew, I'm wondering where Deleuze makes this observation. Could you
provide a citation?
>Rorty rather crudely makes more
>or less this point, that there is no "language of the oppressed", because
>to be oppressed is to be forced to describe yourself in someone else's
>terms.
And where Rorty makes this observation?
Thanks,
Bob