Re: [Foucault-L] translation question

On Wed, Nov 5, 2008 at 5:22 PM, Kevin Turner <kevin.turner@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> When he refers to the classical experience of madness
> or the Greco-Roman experience of sexuality,

Foucault refers to the classical experience of madness, but Foucault
explicitly denies that "sexuality" as such was intelligible to ancient
Greeks and even ancient Romans: "One would have a difficult time
finding among the Greeks (or the Romans either for that matter)
anything resembling the notion of 'sexuality' or 'flesh'" (The Use of
Pleasure, p. 35).

> rather, it is madness or sexuality that undergo experience:
> i.e. that undergo a process of transformation that results in
> the reciprocal genesis of subject and object: of the subject
> capable of knowing madness, and madness as an object
> to be known; as a subject capable of knowing themselves
> as an object of self-reflection.

If you put it that way, you just end up transferring the idea of
transhistorical existence from "subject" and "experience" to "madness"
and "sexuality."

Yoshie

Folow-ups
  • Re: [Foucault-L] translation question
    • From: Kevin Turner
  • Replies
    Re: [Foucault-L] translation question, Yoshie Furuhashi
    Re: [Foucault-L] translation question, Yoshie Furuhashi
    Re: [Foucault-L] translation question, Kevin Turner
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