Re: [Foucault-L] translation question

> Foucault refers to the classical experience of madness, but Foucault
> explicitly denies that "sexuality" as such was intelligible to ancient
> Greeks and even ancient Romans: "One would have a difficult time
> finding among the Greeks (or the Romans either for that matter)
> anything resembling the notion of 'sexuality' or 'flesh'" (The Use of
> Pleasure, p. 35).

not intelligible to Greeks or Romans, intelligible to Foucault.


> If you put it that way, you just end up transferring the idea of
> transhistorical existence from "subject" and "experience" to "madness"
> and "sexuality."

no, because madness does not exist, nor does sexuality for that matter (cf. SPT: 118, 131n10).


Folow-ups
  • Re: [Foucault-L] translation question
    • From: Yoshie Furuhashi
  • Replies
    Re: [Foucault-L] translation question, Yoshie Furuhashi
    Re: [Foucault-L] translation question, Yoshie Furuhashi
    Re: [Foucault-L] translation question, Yoshie Furuhashi
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