re: madness


I'm interjecting into the middle of this conversation, but I'd like to
respond to what you state in your post directly.

You mention some interesting historical examples regarding the institution
of madness in the United States and say:

"So this societal change seems to be motivated by a self-
imposed limitation of power over the "mentally ill." How
does that effect Foucault's thesis?"

Remaining faithful to Foucault's possible interpretation of the examples
you mention, I wouldn't say these examples reveal a "self-imposed
limitation of power" by society. Rather, if this change reveals anything,
it shows a new dispersal of power's relations; a shifting of the power

- Phantom Overtone

Partial thread listing: