Yes but unfortunately in the "social sciences" and sociology this
stupid question cannot be avoided, because it takes for granted the
"agency problem" and the subject/structure opposition on which it
depends.
I guess the right tack would be to show how the notion of "agency" functions as an unquestioned/unquestionable ground within sociological discourse. You might also make use of the concept of "epistemological obstacle" etc.
On 18/04/2007, at 8:24 AM, Arianna wrote:
I guess the right tack would be to show how the notion of "agency" functions as an unquestioned/unquestionable ground within sociological discourse. You might also make use of the concept of "epistemological obstacle" etc.
On 18/04/2007, at 8:24 AM, Arianna wrote:
its a stupid question, that's the answer
jataseli@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
Hello!
I´m a PhD student (MSocSc) in the Department of Social Sciences and
Philosophy at the University of Jyvaskyla in Finland.
My sociological research is about the history of drug addiction treatments
in Finland from 1960´s to present day. In this genealogical study I try
relate the changes in treatment practices to the changes of other
practices, be they discursive or non-discursive, that have made changes in
treatment practices possible. So basic foucauldian stuff.
My current interests lie in the modern concept of addiction and in the
"original" problematization that the emergence of this concept was related
to in the late 18th and early 19th century. Furthermore, being a student
of sociology I confront all the time the question "where´s the agent in
Foucault´s thought". I´ve got a kind of a answer to this question but it
needs more clarification.
Yours
Jani Selin
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