I've read lots of French-written texts and I'm convinced that "assujetissement" is a strategical word to Foucault. He wanted to break the common sense word "subjectivité" (subjectivity?) and turn its sense, like,i.e., Derrida with his "differance" vs "difference". The Foucaldian word "assujetissement" only makes sense if compared with its opposite, the new and resistent "subjectivation" (pratiques de soi or "self care practices") in his late works.
Well, I also must say that I'm not keen on English translations, cause I've only read the Portuguese (from Brazil) ones.
Best wishes,
João Chaves
Catholic University of Pernambuco (Brazil)
A timely question Jason, and a timely suggestion Sam! I was just looking for
> recent work on the term!
>
> Cheers,
> Edwin
>
> 2008/6/18 Sam Binkley <Samuel_Binkley@xxxxxxxxxxx>:
>
> > it's not completely clear whether its his own neologism or something
> > else, but milchman and rosenberg provide a great discussion of the
> > term and its translations here:
> >
> > http://www.parrhesiajournal.org/parrhesia02/parrhesia02_milchrosen.pdf
> >
> > sam
> >
> >
> > On Jun 17, 2008, at 6:47 PM, Jason Weidner wrote:
> >
> > >
> > > Does anyone know, is the word "assujetissement" a Foucauldian
> > > neologism or did the word already exists before Foucault used it?
> > >
> > > Jason R. Weidner
> > > PhD. candidate, Department of International Relations
> > > Florida International University
> > > Miami, FL USA
> > > _______________________________________________
> > > Foucault-L mailing list
> >
> > ________________________________
> > Sam Binkley
> > Emerson College
> >
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