Clare O'Farell wrote
> Il me semble qu'il y ait deux Foucaults: le Foucault francais et le
> foucault anglais. La disjonction etait tres claire lors d'un colloque sur
> Foucault a Paris en 1988 ou il paraissaient que les participants
> anglo-saxons parlaient d'un tout autre foucault que le reste du monde (y
> compris les allemands, les espanols etc)
My French is very bad: I'm willing to attempt a translation here,
though, in the spirit of the academy. Forgive the lack of nuance,
please. This is the best one can do with grade 10 Ontario French and
some interest!
Clare says:
"It seems to me that there are two Foucaults: the French Foucault and the
English one. The distinction became especially clear at a colloquium in
Paris in 1988: the people presenting papers in (Parisienne) French were
speaking of an entirely different Foucault than the rest of the world
(the Germans, the Spanish, and so on) were speaking about."
If this is about right:
Clare, I wonder if you could speculate on the reasons for this
dissonance. In your opinion, is the dual persona of Foucault a function
of the cultures of those who read him, or more a function of the
translations available in the various languages?
I guess my question amounts to this: if there are two Foucaults, what
accounts for this dichotomy?
And, if you have the time to speculate, what has been the *impact* of this
dichotomy?
Although your insights have already proven interesting, thanks in
advance for your responses to my inquiries! : ) I've enjoyed your other
postings, too!
Peace,
Blaine Rehkopf
Philosophy
York University
Toronto, Ontario
CANADA
--
> Il me semble qu'il y ait deux Foucaults: le Foucault francais et le
> foucault anglais. La disjonction etait tres claire lors d'un colloque sur
> Foucault a Paris en 1988 ou il paraissaient que les participants
> anglo-saxons parlaient d'un tout autre foucault que le reste du monde (y
> compris les allemands, les espanols etc)
My French is very bad: I'm willing to attempt a translation here,
though, in the spirit of the academy. Forgive the lack of nuance,
please. This is the best one can do with grade 10 Ontario French and
some interest!
Clare says:
"It seems to me that there are two Foucaults: the French Foucault and the
English one. The distinction became especially clear at a colloquium in
Paris in 1988: the people presenting papers in (Parisienne) French were
speaking of an entirely different Foucault than the rest of the world
(the Germans, the Spanish, and so on) were speaking about."
If this is about right:
Clare, I wonder if you could speculate on the reasons for this
dissonance. In your opinion, is the dual persona of Foucault a function
of the cultures of those who read him, or more a function of the
translations available in the various languages?
I guess my question amounts to this: if there are two Foucaults, what
accounts for this dichotomy?
And, if you have the time to speculate, what has been the *impact* of this
dichotomy?
Although your insights have already proven interesting, thanks in
advance for your responses to my inquiries! : ) I've enjoyed your other
postings, too!
Peace,
Blaine Rehkopf
Philosophy
York University
Toronto, Ontario
CANADA
--